Stupid question from a non-American: Is the intent behind the “subject to the jurisdiction thereof” wording not documented? It’s not like these are words conjured from the ether. People wrote them. Presumably after some discussion and debate.
I’m guessing the amendment as a whole was related to anti-slavery stuff following the civil war. But was there not some understanding at the time as the wider implications of the specific words?
Sure, I guess they can be interpreted however a modern conservative court wants, but why is discussion around the clause so ambiguous as to its origins?
Like so many things with Trump, this is a test of loyalty. He makes outlandish requests that rile up his base, and sees who’ll fold. Sean Spicer with crowd sizes, RFK with McDonalds on the plane Photoshoot. And now this with House republicans.
The problem is these dumbfucks haven’t yet figured out that they don’t gain anything by being loyal to Trump. He’ll toss them out sooner or later anyway.